I’m hoping someone can help me to get my head around this concept. Refer to the attached network diagram.
Is this a valid network design? The reason I’m not sure is because the /24 subnet used in the DMZ is also part of the /16 subnet used on the LAN. I think this will work by configuring the routes on R1 and FW1 as shown. Since a directly connected subnet will take precedence over a route I believe it will work.
Even though it does work, is it bad practice?
Thanks in advance,
Note: For R1 Routing table the next hop should be 10.120.254.2 (the address of FW1)