clearlinkMemberAug 04, 2009 at 11:24 pm #143583
I know this is possible, but I can’t seem to figure it out…
We have a Cisco 5513 w/ RSM and has been functioning flawlessly since we bought it new… The RSM has IOS 12.1(20) on it
Here’s our setup:
WAN1 – 10mb ethernet (has three public /24’s assigned to it – let’s say 1.0.1.x, 1.0.2.x and 1.0.3.x and the default/WAN route is 22.214.171.124)
WAN2 – 100mb ethernet (has two public /24’s assigned to it – let’s say 2.0.1.x and 2.0.2.x) and the default/WAN route is 126.96.36.199)
WAN1 has always been our main inet connection, but we’ve just added WAN2 for a bump in speed, but specifically don’t want to implement BGP for “political/security” reasons in the company (let’s not go there).
In the RSM, we subnet EVERYTHING by VLAN and rate-limit by VLAN, which allows us to do exactly what we need.
We’ve setup WAN2 and it’s active, but i’m running into a default route issue… We’re utilizing a standard static “gateway of last resort” which points to 188.8.131.52, this is perfectly fine for WAN1, but when I assign a subnet from WAN2 (which is pingable publically through WAN2 to the RSM’s VLAN) it routes all outbound traffic out the gateway of last resort (184.108.40.206, which is on WAN1)…. obviously not a good thing…
is there a way to setup the RSM to simply tell the traffic “use the route you came in on”?? (example: 1.0.2.x would take the WAN1 route and 2.0.1.x would take WAN2’s route?)…
I’m pretty good at standard routing, but I beleive OSPF or EIGRP will be the way to go, but I have no clue on how to implement…
Keep in mind, we do not have an ASN and need to keep the networks seperate….
CLEAR LINK Networks
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